Mt 1:22-23 mentions that something was fulfilled which was "said by the prophet", and almost always it is interpreted as a reference to what Isa 7:14 says:
Isa 7:14 (KJV)
Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
A question arises as to how Isa 7 was fulfilled in Mt 1, seeing - for example - that Jesus himself was never named or called "Immanuel"? He was named "Jesus", cp both Mt 1:25 (Joseph called his name Jesus) and also Lk 1:31 (the angel Gabriel telling Mary that she should call her son's name Jesus).Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
Another question arises, how the fulfillment of this prophecy could be a sign for the king in Isaiah's time, seeing that Jesus was born many centuries later? (cp also the topic on "double fulfillment of prophecy")
Input and further insights are appreciated.


