Did John of Pathmos fail in his prophecy? That's the new, open minded approach I am considering with this book. Any book of the Bible or apocyrha etc involves for me the biblical cannon questions and opinions of divine inspiration, and critical analysis of copies since no originals exist too but I'm finding that this consideration with an honest, open look may just make more sense to me.
The Roman Imperial temple cult after Vespasian, I've been reading about this some and then the time of the Roman setting that seems to fit the time of the book (90's) seems to me to maybe referring to John's belief in his visions for the end of the Roman rule and the coming of the kingdom very shortly from the time of writing which we know did not happen in the physical sense of Jesus' presence and other things predicted in the book. Maybe I should say in a physical sense since there are other interpretations of the book's prophecies.
I also ask myself, how much room is fair to give this book in the ways we and others may interpret and reinterpret it yet continue to hold it as the true and inspired word of God? Can we allow John to be very knowledgeable of the Old Testament writings (commentators say like 1/2 the book has reference to the Old Testament or OT apocrypha) and be noncritical about his conviction in his belief yet come to the conclusion he was simply in error with his visions and prophecies? Then not throw out the whole of Christian faith or of other books of the bible just treating this one book with the tests of faithfuly coming to pass or not, and in the time period that it was to be soon after his writing.
When is reinterpreting over and over just too much and maybe foolish or should I never give up and refuse to consider the prophecies in this book may have failed long ago?


